2023 Credits are used to record A decreases in assets and owner s equity and increases | Assignments Online

2023 Credits are used to record A decreases in assets and owner s equity and increases | Assignments Online

Assignments Online 2023 Business Finance

Credits are used to record:

A) decreases in assets and owner’s equity and increases in liabilities.
B) decreases in assets, liabilities, and owner’s equity.
C) decreases in liabilities and increases in assets and owner’s equity.
D) increases in liabilities and owner’s equity.

2.

Which of the following types of accounts normally have debit balances?

A) assets and revenue
B) assets, liabilities, and owners equity
C) expenses and assets
D) liabilities and owner’s equity

3.

On November 1, 20–, a firm accepted a 4-month, 10 percent note for $900 from a customer with an overdue balance. The accrued interest recorded for this note for the year ended December 31, 20–, is (assume a 360 day year)

A) $75
B) $30
C) $15
D) $90

4.

The entry to record a return by a credit customer of defective merchandise on which no sales tax was charged includes:

A) a credit to Sales and a debit to Accounts Receivable
B) a debit to Sales and a credit to Sales Returns and Allowances
C) a debit to Sales Returns and Allowances and a credit to Accounts Receivable
D) a debit to Accounts Receivable and a credit to Sales Returns and Allowances

5.

If a firm had sales of $50,000 during a period and sales returns and allowances of $4,000, its net sales were:

A) $54,000
B) $50,000
C) $46,000.
D) $4,000

6.

On December 31, prior to adjustment, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $200. An aged analysis of the accounts receivable produces an estimate of $1,000 of probable losses from uncollectible accounts. The adjusting entry needed to record the estimated losses from uncollectible accounts is made for

A) $800
B) $1,000
C) $1,200
D) $200

7.

A firm reported net credit sales of $225,000 during the year and has a balance of $20,000 in its Accounts Receivable account at year-end. Prior to adjustment, Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a credit balance of $100. The firm estimated its losses from uncollectible accounts to be one-half of 1 percent of sales. The entry to record the estimated losses from uncollectible accounts will include a credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for

A) $1,225
B) $1,125
C) $ 900
D) $2,250

8.

Upon collection of the amount due on a $6,000 face value, 90-day note with interest at 10 percent a year, the Note Receivable account is:

A) debited for $6,600
B) credited for $6,000
C) credited for $6,150
D) debited for $6,000

9.

The entry to record a purchase of merchandise on credit using a periodic inventory system includes

A) a debit to Merchandise Inventory and a credit to Accounts Payable
B) a credit to Merchandise Inventory and a debit to Accounts Payable
C) a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Purchases
D) a debit to Purchases (COGS) and a credit to Accounts Payable

10.

The entry to record a purchase of merchandise on credit using a perpetual inventory system includes:

A) a debit to Merchandise Inventory and a credit to Accounts Payable
B) a credit to Merchandise Inventory and a debit to Accounts Payable
C) a debit to Accounts Payable and a credit to Purchases
D) a debit to Purchases (COGS) and a credit to Accounts Payable

11.

The total of the balances in the creditor’s accounts should agree with the balance of:

A) the Purchases account in the general ledger
B) the Accounts Receivable account in the general ledger
C) the Accounts Payable account in the general ledger
D) the Sales account in the general ledger

12.

A firm purchased equipment for $6,000 on credit and issued a 120-day note bearing interest at 9 percent. To record this transaction, the accountant would:

A) debit Equipment for $6,000 and credit Notes Payable for $6,000
B) debit Equipment for $6,180, credit Interest Expense for $180, and credit Notes Payable for $6,000
C) debit Equipment for $6,000, debit Interest Expense for $180, and credit Notes Payable for $6,180
D) credit Equipment for $6,000 and debit Accounts Payable for $6,000

13.

When a company issues a promissory note, the accountant records an entry that includes a credit to Note Payable for:

A) the face value of the note
B) the face value of the note plus the interest that will accrue
C) the face value less the interest that will accrue
D) the maturity value of the note

14.

How much interest will accrue on a $20,000 face value, 60-day note that bears interest at 9 percent a year? (assume a 360 day year)

A) $300
B) $1,800
C) $450
D) $900

15.

Notes payable due within one year are usually shown:

A) in the Current Assets section of the balance sheet
B) in the Current Liabilities section of the balance sheet
C) in the Other Expenses section of the income statement
D) in the Long-Term Liabilities section of the balance sheet

16.

The maturity value of a 90-day note for $4,000 that bears interest at 10 percent a year is (assume a 360 day year)

A) $4,400
B) $4,000
C) $3,900
D) $4,100

17.

Lisa Ramos has a regular hourly rate of $10.75. In a week when she worked 40 hours and had deductions of $55 for federal income tax, $26.75 for social security tax, and $6.25 for Medicare tax, her net pay was

A) $430
B) $342
C) $375
D) $397

18.

The amount debited to Wages Expense when a payroll is recorded is the:

A) Regular gross earnings (not including overtime)
B) Earnings after taxes
C) Net earnings
D) Total gross earnings

19.

Each type of deduction made from the employees’ earnings is recorded in a separate:

A) asset account
B) expense account
C) liability account
D) revenue account

20.

To record the deposit of FUTA tax, the accountant would:

A) debit Payroll Taxes Expense and credit Federal Unemployment Tax Payable.
B) debit Payroll Taxes Expense and credit Cash.
C) debit Federal Unemployment Tax Payable and credit Cash.
D) debit Social Security Taxes Payable and credit Cash.

21.

The adjusting entry to record accrued interest on a note payable requires:

A) a debit to Interest Income and a credit to Notes Payable
B) a debit to Interest Payable and a credit to Interest Expense
C) a debit to Interest Expense and a credit to Cash
D) a debit to Interest Expense and a credit to Interest Payable

22.

On May 1, 20–, a firm purchased a 1-year insurance policy for $1,800 and paid the full premium in advance. The insurance expense associated with this policy for 20—is

A) $600
B) $1,200
C) $1,800
D) $1,050

23.

An asset that cost $14,000 was sold for $9,000 cash. Accumulated depreciation on the asset was $7,000. The entry to record this transaction includes the recognition of:

A) a gain of $2,000
B) a loss of $5,000
C) neither a gain nor a loss
D) a loss of $2,000

24.

An adjusting entry is usually not required for an expense item:

A) when it is paid for and recorded in one period but not fully used until a later period
B) when it is used in one period but not paid for or recorded until a later period
C) when it is paid for, recorded, and used in one period
D) when it is budgeted but not paid for or used during the period

25.

A firm that sells a single product had a beginning inventory of 4,000 units with a total cost of $28,000. Early in the year, 10,000 units were purchased at $9 each. Using FIFO, what is the value of the ending inventory of 3,000 units?

A) $27,000
B) $24,000
C) $21,000
D) $36,000

26.

A firm that sells a single product had a beginning inventory of 4,000 units with a total cost of $16,000. Early in the year, 8,000 units were purchased at $6 each. Using LIFO, what is the value of the ending inventory of 2,000 units?

A) $12,000
B) $10,000
C) $8,000
D) $24,000

27.

A matching of the most recent costs to revenue results from the use of:

A) the LIFO method
B) the FIFO method
C) the average cost method
D) the lower of cost or market method

28.

On January 2, 20–, a firm purchased equipment for $8,500. Depreciation expense for 20–, given the straight-line method, a 5-year useful life, and a salvage value of $1,500, is:

A) $1,500
B) $1,700
C) $1,200
D) $1,400

29.

A firm purchases an asset for $50,000 and estimates that it will have a useful life of five years and a salvage value of $5,000. Under the double-declining-balance method, the depreciation expense for the first year of the asset’s useful life is:

A) $9,000
B) $18,000
C) $10,000
D) $20,000

30.

The method of depreciation that results in the same amount of depreciation expense each year is the:

A) units-of-output method
B) straight-line method
C) sum-of-the-years’-digits method
D) declining-balance method

31.

An accountant who records revenue when a credit sale is made rather than waiting for the receipt of cash from the customer is:

A) following the accrual principle
B) following the conservatism convention
C) violating generally accepted accounting principles
D) following the consistency principle

32.

Depreciating equipment over its useful life is an example of:

A) following the objectivity assumption
B) applying the matching principle
C) applying the realization principle
D) applying the conservatism convention

33.

Keeping the personal assets of the owner of a business separate from the assets of the firm is an example of:

A) following the going concern assumption
B) applying the realization principle
C) following the separate entity assumption
D) applying the conservatism convention

34.

A firm has sales of $40,000 in 2004 and $45,000 in 2005. The increase in sales from 2004 to 2005 is:

A) 25%
B) 20%
C) 125%
D) 12.5%

35.

A firm has liabilities of $60,000 and stockholders’ equity of $180,000. The percentage of total liabilities to total assets is:

A) 25 percent
B) 20 percent
C) 50 percent
D) 75 percent

36.

The current ratio is calculated by:

A) dividing current assets by total liabilities
B) dividing net working capital by current liabilities
C) dividing current assets by current liabilities
D) dividing total assets by current liabilities

37.

A company’s January 1 balance in Accounts Receivable is $70,000. The December 31 balance is $80,000. If the company has credit sales of $600,000, the accounts receivable turnover is:

A) 8.0 times
B) 7.5 times
C) 4.0 times
D) 7.0 times

38.

Stockholders’ equity:

A) is usually equal to cash on hand
B) includes paid-in capital and liabilities
C) includes retained earnings and paid-in capital
D) is shown on the income statement

39.

The charter of a corporation authorizes 100,000 shares of common stock. Assume that 50,000 shares were originally issued and 5,000 were subsequently reacquired. What is the amount of cash dividends to be paid if a $1 per share dividend is declared?

A) $50,000
B) $5,000
C) $100,000
D) $45,000

40.

If the market rate of interest is 8%, the price of 6% bonds paying interest semiannually with a face value of $100,000 will be:

A) equal to $100,000
B) greater than $100,000
C) less than $100,000
D) greater than or less than $100,000, depending on the maturity date of the bonds

41.

The journal entry a company records for the issuance of bonds when the contract rate is greater than the market rate would be:

A) debit Cash, credit Premium on Bonds Payable and Bonds Payable
B) debit Bonds Payable, credit Cash
C) debit Cash and Discount on Bonds Payable, credit Bonds Payable
D) debit Cash, credit Bonds Payable

42.

Jack and Jill share income and losses in a 2:1 ratio after allowing for salaries to Jack of $24,000 and $30,000 to Jill. Net income for the partnership is $66,000. Income should be divided as follows:

A) Jack, $24,000; Jill, $30,000
B) Jack, $24,000; Jill, $34,000
C) Jack, $30,000; Jill, $36,000
D) Jack, $32,000; Jill, $34,000

43.

The liability for a dividend is recorded on which of the following dates?

A) the date of record
B) the date of payment
C) the date of announcement
D) the date of declaration

44.

The journal entry to issue 1,000,000 shares of $5 par common stock for $7.00 per share on January 2nd would be:

A)

Jan 2

Cash

 

7,000,000

 
   

Common Stock

 

5,000,000

   

Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par – C/S

 

2,000,000

B)

Jan 2

Cash

 

5,000,000

 
   

Common Stock

 

5,000,000

C)

Jan 2

Cash

 

5,000,000

 
 

Common Stock

 

2,000,000

 
   

Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par – C/S

 

7,000,000

D)

Jan 2

Cash

 

1,000,000

 
   

Common Stock

 

1,000,000

 

45.

Which types of inventories does a manufacturing business report on the balance sheet?

A) Finished goods inventory and work in process inventory
B) Direct materials inventory and work in process inventory
C) Direct materials inventory, work in process inventory, and finished goods inventory
D) Direct materials inventory and finished goods inventory

46.

In a job order cost accounting system, the entry to record the flow of direct materials into production is:

A) debit Work in Process, credit Materials
B) debit Materials, credit Work in Process
C) debit Factory Overhead, credit Materials
D) debit Work in Process, credit Supplies

47.

Based on the following production and sales estimates for May, determine the number of units expected to be manufactured in May:

Estimated inventory (units), May 1

10,000

Desired inventory (units), May 31

15,000

Expected sales volume (units):

 

South region

30,000

West region

40,000

North region

20,000

Unit sales price

$10

A) 85,000
B) 95,000
C) 90,000
D) 105,000

48.

If fixed costs are $250,000, the unit selling price is $105, and the unit variable costs are $65, what is the break-even sales (units)?

A) 3,846 units
B) 2,381 units
C) 10,000 units
D) 6,250 units

49.

The entry to transfer a net income to the owner’s capital account would include:

A) a debit to the owner’s capital account and a credit to Cash
B) a debit to the owner’s drawing account and a credit to the owner’s capital account
C) a debit to Income Summary and a credit to the owner’s capital account
D) a debit to the owner’s capital account and a credit to Income Summary

50.

The entry to close the appropriate insurance account at the end of the accounting period is:

A) debit Income Summary; credit Prepaid Insurance
B) debit Prepaid Insurance; credit Income Summary
C) debit Insurance Expense; credit Income Summary
D) debit Income Summary; credit Insurance Expense

51.

Which of the following accounts ordinarily appears in the post-closing trial balance?

A) Unearned Rent
B) Bill Smith, Drawing
C) Supplies Expense
D) Fees Earned

52.

John, age 25, is a full time student at a state university. John lives with his sister, Ann, who provides over half of his support. His only income is $4,000 of wages from a part-time job at the college book store. What is Ann’s filing status?

A) Single
B) Head of Household
C) Married, filing separately
D) Qualifying widow

53.

Wesley owns and operates the Cheshire Chicken Ranch in Turpid, Nevada. The income from this ranch is $49,000. Wesley wishes to use the easiest possible tax form. He may file:

A) Form 1040EZ
B) Form 1040A
C) Form 1040
D) Form 1040C

54.

Which of the following would be a business debt if it were uncollectible?

A) A taxpayer loans his father $1,000 to start a business
B) A taxpayer loans his son $10,000 to purchase a rental house
C) A dentist, using the accrual basis of accounting, extends credit to a patient for services provided
D) A taxpayer loans his brother $3,000 to purchase a truck for use in his brother’s business

55.

Which of the following tax credits can exceed the amount of the taxpayer’s tax liability?

A) Child and dependent care credit
B) HOPE credit
C) Alternative minimum tax credit
D) Earned income credit

56.

Sol purchased land as an investment on January 12, 2004 for $85,000. On January 31, 2008 Sol sold the land for $90,000 cash. What is the nature of the gain or loss?

A) long-term capital loss
B) long-term capital gain
C) short-term capital loss
D) short-term capital gain

57.

Which of the following is a benefit of computerized accounting systems?

A) Time consuming
B) Posting and journalizing separate functions
C) Accuracy
D) No subsidiary ledgers

58.

Trading Securities normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

59.

Depreciation Expense normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

60.

Leased Equipment normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

61.

Dividends Payable normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

62.

Gain on Sale of Equipment normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

63.

Prepaid Rent normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

64.

Accumulated Depreciation – Leased Asset normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

65.

Unearned Revenue normally appears on which of the following statements?

A) Balance Sheet
B) Income Statement
C) Statement of Owner’s Equity
D) Account does not appear on any statement

You must use the spreadsheet that you downloaded earlier to complete the following questions:

Pastina Co. Spreadsheet –

Pastina Co.

Trial Balance

For the Period Ended January 31, 20xx

         
 

January 1 Balances

January 31 Balances

Account Title

Debit

Credit

Debit

Credit

Cash

25,000

 

41,900

Accounts Receivable

7,000

 

24,500

Allowance

 

1,750

3,500

Trading Securities

1,000

 

3,000

Inventory

35,000

 

28,000

Notes Receivable

5,000

 

18,000

Interest Receivable

1,200

 

4,000

Prepaid Rent

5,000

 

7,000

Prepaid Insurance

1,000

 

2,000

Patent

17,000

 

21,000

Equipment

38,500

 

42,000

Accumulated Depreciation – Equipment

   

14,000

Leased Equipment

 

120,000

 

Accumulated Depreciation – Leased Equipment

 

 

4,000

Accounts Payable

 

21,000

 

17,500

Wage Payable

 

8,000

 

5,500

Long-term Note Payable

 

35,000

 

59,850

Taxes Payable

 

4,000

 

6,900

Interest Payable

 

500

 

Discount on Notes Payable

3,500

 

2,800

 

Lease Payable

   

120,000

Unearned Revenue

 

7,000

 

Common Stock

 

30,000

 

45,000

Paid in Captial in Excess of Par – Common

 

16,700

 

17,500

Retained Earnings

 

13,250

 

?

Sales Revenue

 

 

147,000

Interest Revenue

 

 

1,400

Cost of Goods Sold

 

84,000

 

Wage Expense

 

14,600

 

Rent Expense

 

10,000

 

Depreciation Expense

 

9,000

 

Interest Expense

 

4,200

 

Supplies Expense

 

6,400

 

Insurance Expense

 

600

 

Bad Debt Expense

 

3,000

 

Rent Payable

 

1,000

 

5,000

Advertising expense

 

4,500

 

Amortization Expense

 

6,000

 

Dividends Payable

 

1,000

 

800

Gain on sale of equip

 

 

1,500

Income tax Expense

 

6,900

 

Treasury Stock

 

3,000

 

Gain on Sales of Trading Securities

 

 

2,000

Total

139,200

139,200

466,400

451,450

 

66.

What is the amount of cash collected from customers if Pastina wrote off $1,250 of Accounts Receivable as Uncollectible?

A) $121,250
B) $128,250
C) $170,250
D) $145,750

67.

What are the total current liabilities?

A) $16,780
B) $23,000
C) $35,700
D) $85,700

68.

What would be the ending Retained Earnings balance if Pastina declared $1,000 in dividends?

A) $14,950
B) $12,950
C) $12,250
D) $11,500

69.

How much cash was paid for taxes?

A) $2,900
B) $4,000
C) $6,900
D) $10,900

70.

What are the cash flows from the sale of common stock?

A) $15,000
B) $15,800
C) $18,800
D) $62,500

71.

How much cash was paid for inventory?

A) $80,500
B) $74,500
C) $50,000
D) $28,000

72.

What is the gross profit?

A) $147,000
B) $84,000
C) $63,000
D) $64,400

73.

What is the total Stockholder’s Equity?

A) $74,450
B) $72,450
C) $73,450
D) $75,450

74.

What is the value of total assets?

A) $191,400
B) $289,900
C) $292,900
D) $311,400

75.

What is the book value of the equipment?

A) $42,000
B) $63,000
C) $49,000
D) $28,000

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